To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

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To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby altar » Wed Jun 23, 2010 4:30 pm

To what extent are perceptions condition for sensual desire?

It is said that with the perception of foulness fully developed, or of the four elements, one's desire for food or the body is anullified. To what extent does it also anullify the desire for the sensations of contact with the food, or pleasurable sensations with the body? Is it merely that one has a distaste for food based on knowledge of what will happen to the food, or distaste with tbe body because of what it's really like, and no longer sees lasting happiness in it, and thereby turns away from it, or is it that the sensations dependent on food and the body are also no longer interesting or binding?
Thank you, this is a question that came to me eating just now.
Zack
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Re: To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby jcsuperstar » Wed Jun 23, 2010 4:42 pm

i dont think it could be distaste as that would be desire as well, the desire to not have food etc.
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Re: To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby Sobeh » Wed Jun 23, 2010 7:06 pm

altar wrote:It is said that with the perception of foulness fully developed, or of the four elements, one's desire for food or the body is anullified. To what extent does it also anullify the desire for the sensations of contact with the food, or pleasurable sensations with the body? Is it merely that one has a distaste for food based on knowledge of what will happen to the food, or distaste with tbe body because of what it's really like, and no longer sees lasting happiness in it, and thereby turns away from it, or is it that the sensations dependent on food and the body are also no longer interesting or binding?


Meditation on foulness ought not to result in distaste, which is aversion. Dispassion, cessation of desire, results in food being taken as a medicine for the sickness of hunger and the sickness of nutrition. It is medicine, not to be desired or hated, merely taken as needed according to the disease.
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Re: To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby altar » Wed Jun 23, 2010 10:15 pm

To both posters,
Whether distaste = dispassion is another debate. This is not the subject of the post. Thanks for your input.
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Re: To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby Sobeh » Thu Jun 24, 2010 12:14 am

In the portion of what you wrote that I quoted, I was answering the last question.

As to the question that is the title of this thread, the extent to which desire is based on perception is 20%, as follows:

form, 20%
feeling, 20%
perception, 20%
volitional formations, 20%
consciousness, 20%

;)
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Re: To what extent is desire for sensations based on perception?

Postby kc2dpt » Thu Jun 24, 2010 1:54 pm

altar wrote:Is it merely that one has a distaste for food based on knowledge of what will happen to the food, or distaste with tbe body because of what it's really like, and no longer sees lasting happiness in it, and thereby turns away from it, or is it that the sensations dependent on food and the body are also no longer interesting or binding?

I would think for an anagami or arahant it is the latter. I am thinking of the leper similies and the deva simile in the suttas. In the first sutta the Buddha says our perception if sensual pleasure is distorted. In the second sutta the Buddha says that compared to the bliss of Nibbana ordinary pleasures are simply no longer interesting.
- Peter

Be heedful and you will accomplish your goal.
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