Would you be so kind as to actually carefully support that statement rather than merely asserting it.Dmytro wrote:that's why he is called 'Buddha', "one who comprehended on his own"
Would you be so kind as to actually carefully support that statement rather than merely asserting it.Dmytro wrote:that's why he is called 'Buddha', "one who comprehended on his own"
Not that you have shown.santa100 wrote: Thus it's obvious that the scope of the AN excerpt is the "superset" to that of the SN excerpt.
The SN is still open ended, not limited, which put it out there with "whatever in the cosmos."Obviously it did not have "whatever in the cosmos". It's specifically "beings and persons", regardless of whether in the unlimited or limted sense, but that's still it.
mikenz66 wrote:The "omniscience" (whatever that means, exactly) and various teaching skills spelled out in the stuttas (which seem to me to be connected with the "omniscience") are the distinctions between an Arahant and a Buddha?

Yes, indeed, and none of that is bodhi as the Buddha uses the term in relation to himself and the attainment of the arahants.Dmytro wrote:Hi Mike,mikenz66 wrote:The "omniscience" (whatever that means, exactly) and various teaching skills spelled out in the stuttas (which seem to me to be connected with the "omniscience") are the distinctions between an Arahant and a Buddha?
The main distinction is that the Buddha opens up the forgotten path.
Other distinctions are omniscience (in the Buddhist sense), teaching skills, and other faculties, explained more fully in Patisambhidamagga.
Because he makes known the path to the awakening, bodhi, he attained through the power he cultivated, and that bodhi the Buddha attained, that nibbana, that cessation is no different from that attained bodhi by the arahants:That's why his attainment is called Samma-sambodhi.
tiltbillings wrote:It is mind reading, not omniscience.
Dhammanando wrote:Well, the commentarial view is that all knowable things are potentially accessible to [the Buddha's understanding, paññā], but that they are not all simultaneously accessible. We haven't yet got around to the question of what is meant by a knowable thing, but this too is an important qualification, for nowhere is it asserted that all things are knowable things. And so the Buddha's "omniscience" as the commentators understand it, is far from being the Allah-like or Jehovah-like omniscience that some Mahayana Buddhists posit. For example, there must be at least some future things that are not knowable things, since for all future things to be knowable would require all future things to be predetermined, which would conflict with the Buddha's rejection of fatalism.
santa100 wrote:... This is understood by the Theravāda commentators as...
daverupa wrote:(No. 8 in that link, for example, is utterly problematic.)
daverupa wrote:...which is exactly what's been mentioned repeatedly... the assertion requires commentarial referents, and otherwise has nothing to do with the degree of freedom from the asavas.
It is what the text clearly describes.Ñāṇa wrote:tiltbillings wrote:It is mind reading, not omniscience.
And how do you know this?
I know, and I am not contesting that.The Theravāda tradition maintains that it's referring to omniscience.
You have not shown that to be the case. And certainly you have not supported that with direct quotes from the suttas, which is what I am talking about, not the later sectarian stuff.The Theravāda tradition also commonly explains that omniscience is one of the definitions of the term bodhi.
I am not rejecting anything. I am simply pointing to what the suttas say and how the term bodhi is used by the Buddha as he relates it to himself AND the arahants in the suttas. That after the death of the Buddha there was movement in how the Buddha was to be understood is well know and is certainly demonstrable even using tradition texts such as the Kathavatthu, which addresses these movements. And in this the Theravada was certainly not exempt from valorizing the Buddha, drawing a separation between the Buddha and the arahants that was not there in the suttas.Moreover, all Buddhist traditions maintain that the Buddha was omniscient and that this is one of the qualities that differentiates a Buddha's awakening from that of an arahant disciple. You're attempting to reject a foundational Buddhist tenet that's well over 2000 years old, considered important enough to be included in the Pāli canon,
That's nice; however, it really does not address the point I have raised.as well as in Ven. Walpola Rahula's Basic Points Unifying the Theravāda and the Mahāyāna which was unanimously approved at the First Congress of the World Buddhist Sangha Council.
However, it seems that from a Theravadin point of view concerning the question of bodhi, a bodhisatta cannot attain bodhi until the moment of his full awakening. So, what is being developed up until the time of full awakening actually is not bodhi, but it certainly the requisites for the attainment of bodhi.Ñāṇa wrote:A mahābodhisatta is concerned with the long term development of the pāramīs in order to realize sammāsambodhi, not the elimination of the āsavas during this dispensation.
I am not going to convince you, nor you me; however, that is really beside my point: The bodhi attained by the Buddha is no different from that attained by the arahants.santa100 wrote: . . .
So, there are two bodhis?santa100 wrote:Tiltbillings wrote:
"I am not going to convince you, nor you me; however, that is really beside my point: The bodhi attained by the Buddha is no different from that attained by the arahants"
Of course, it's not part of my intention to begin with, and that's also beside my point: The arahants and the Buddha attained bodhi, the Buddha went the extra miles and attained samma-sambodhi..
Do explain again, please.santa100 wrote:Neither same nor different, read my original post again..
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